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1 + 1 = 3


Derpy.H

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hehe. Didn't think it was possible, eh?

Here. Proof.

1 + 1 = 3

If we let x = y,

 

x-y+y = y

x-y+y ÷ x-y = y ÷ x-y

 

If we simplify this we get:

 

x-y ÷ x-y + y ÷ x-y = y ÷ x-y

 

OR

 

1+y ÷ x-y = y ÷ x-y

1 = y ÷ x-y - y ÷ x-y (This means 1 = 0)

 

Now knowing x = y or 1=1 is true and that 1=0 (or 0=1), we show:

0 = 1,

1 = 1

and

1 = 1.

 

If we add all these equations we get:

0+1+1 = 1+1+1

 

or, fully simplified

 

1+1=3

Is there somewhere I went wrong? It took a while to work all of this out, so some feedback on this would help.

Edited by Derpy.H
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You divided by zero, your argument is invalid.

 

Not necessarily, because in a black hole my argument is not invalid because in black holes dividing by zero IS POSSIBLE. (Einstein proved it.)
  • Brohoof 1
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Maybe I just didn't get far enough into math but how is it even possible that X=Y in the first place? They are meant to represent two totally different numbers in the first place and it would confuse an entire equation using two different symbols for the same exact number.

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Well, uh, thanks for the feedback. I will be sure to have a look at all my hard work, see if I can try to do anything (probably can't and cant be bothered. It took me quite a while to work all that out)

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What the?

 

So you just throw in a number of x and y and claim them to be numbers they arent?

 

x=1, y=1

 

x-y ÷ x-y + y ÷ x-y = y ÷ x-y

1 - (1/1) - 1 + (1/1) - 1 = (1/1) - 1?

1 - 1 -1 + 1 -1 = 1 - 1

-1 = 0? Nope, just random stuff that isn't right

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All of these involve division by zero. It can make any statement true with a bit of effort

 

Hey, it's not my fault if dividing by zero is possible in a black hole.

 

 

Sometimes you guys leed me to believe these forums are populated by super geniuses.

 

Believe me, I am not a super genius.. it took me TOO long to work all that out.
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What the?

 

So you just throw in a number of x and y and claim them to be numbers they arent?

 

x=1, y=1

 

x-y ÷ x-y + y ÷ x-y = y ÷ x-y

1 - (1/1) - 1 + (1/1) - 1 = (1/1) - 1?

1 - 1 -1 + 1 -1 = 1 - 1

-1 = 0? Nope, just random stuff that isn't right

 

The main point of this is it's a theoretical thing. That, and is trying to solve for one letter you would only substitute one of the letters with a number as well.

 

My other half can prove that 2+1 =1 or something...I forget.

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sin 40o = opposite/hypotenuse

---------------------------------------

sin 40o = Y/10

------------------

0.6428 = Y/10

------------------

Y = 0.6428 x 10

--------------------

Y = 6.43 km

==========

sin 50o = Opposite/hypotenuse

----------------------------------------

sin 40o = X/10

------------------

X = 0.7660 x 10

--------------------

X = 7.66 km

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